Why would the usual procedure be to gelatinize corn and rye grain and use malted barley (i understand about it strong diastatic properties) to saccharify and form the fermentable mash while in the case of barley and wheat it is preferred to use the malting and mashing route to obtain the mash to be fermented? What is the basis of making these decisions?
Sensory-wise would it be very different if corn was cooked and saccharified and versus malted and mashed with its own quota of amylase and supplemented by malted barley?
Do unmalted grains have amylase at all? (or is it all produced during germination?)So if we gelatinize corn will it be totally dependent on the amylase from the malted barley for the saccharification activity (converting starch into fermentable sugars)?
I am a student of Food Science and my teacher was unable to answer these queries convincingly or let me say i have a doubt on the answers he/she rendered and am checking back with experts here. Please do not mind these, not too intelligent queries for what may be obvious for you pros
Thanks
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Why is corn and rye alcohol NOT made by malting (rather than gelatinizing) the grain"
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